The French suffered more grievously during the period 1622 to 1646. In contrast with the situation in England where the most serious epidemics occurred later, between 1620 and 1666.
Return Of The Black Death; The World's Greatest Serial Killer Susan Scott, Christopher Duncan Wiley, 2004. p52.
I'm sorry, I'll read that again...
"Later"?
"Earlier" could also be valid with dates given.
Maybe serious epidemics DID peak in England after they had peaked in France, that is to say, between 1646 and 1666, but these two sentences neither state nor support this.
There were some other ambiguous or unclear date-related offenses I had already worried over, but this one just sent me into a spin of frustration.
Rewrite. Better still, delete. Best, defenestrate.
~~~~~~~~~
So disappointed; wanted to read a good book that discusses whether the first wave of the Black Death was bubonic plague (from fleas on rats) or, as is more likely (for several reasons), pneumonic plague (from person to person by droplets, such as in influenza.)
Should have predicted such an assault on E@L's nerves what with the corny subtitle, eh?
E@L
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